Before I get to the topic of the parallels/prophecies, I want to provide a disclaimer, lest anyone think I’m some Christian fundamentalist who reads the Bible literally and believes it’s inerrant and that Jesus died to atone for our sins and is the only way to Salvation, blah, blah, etc.: I am not a Christian in any traditional sense. I’m very liberal or progressive. In fact, a lot of mainstream Christians would say I’m a heretic/not a Christian. There’s plenty in the NT that I don’t agree with theologically, but having read much over 20 years on the historical Jesus and early Christianity, I do follow the teachings of Jesus, not church doctrine. I’m not invested in a particular religious belief system; that I do think there was an historical Jesus at the core of Christianity (maybe not as we have it today), is due to all my reading of academic books. I see Jesus as an enlightened Jewish rabbi (teacher/preacher) and apocalyptic prophet (in the vein of mystical revelation) who began a “Kingdom” movement (with no intent to start a new religion). He taught more about how he saw or understood (via “apocalypse”= mystical revelation) the relationship of man to God and the process of spiritual awakening (rebirth) and transformation, with the goal of bringing the “Kingdom”/heaven/God’s way to reign TO EARTH (“Thy will be done
on earth, as it is in heaven”) by transforming one heart at a time. That’s how the new world is now coming/will come. I see Jesus as an enlightened teacher similar to Buddha, Mohammad, Rumi, Gandhi, etc. – to paraphrase from a post above – the colors may vary, but the chameleon is still a chameleon. Same universal, spiritual message of transformation/alchemy, but couched in Jesus’ time, Abrahamic faith, and a Jewish-Palestinian context. It was others who came later (maybe even some of Jesus’ own disciples) who didn’t fully understand his message and twisted his teachings and contorted them to suit their own theologies/ideologies and selfish/controlling/political purposes. Yes, I’d count the Romans in there, too, but not until much later.
Regarding the parallels Atwill has “discovered” (like some kind of Bible Code) -- I think scholar Tom Verenna does an excellent job of rebutting Atwill’s book and his parallels:
http://tomverenna.wordpress.com/2012/09/25/no-joe-atwill-rome-did-not-invent-jesus/
(See also what info he adds in the comments.)
He discusses intertextuality – how ancient authors commonly used each other’s works, which is not new to scholars -- and Atwill’s lack of socio-cultural context with regard to going back to the original Greek of Josephus and the Gospels:
“I have published a real book … which, interesting enough, delves into intertextuality (the term used to describe the function of the ‘parallels’ you mention below) and the use of certain terms found in Josephus (that includes going back to the original Greek, discussing links between concepts, socioculturally, etc…)–none of which Atwill has done in his ‘real book’.”
“None of Atwill’s parallels are convincing, least of all this one [the “fishing for men” parallel]. Does he analyze them philologically? I doubt it, since he has no grasp of Greek or Hebrew. His biggest failure is that he fails to recognize that
correlation does not equal causation. Parallels can exist but have no direct relationship between the two objects under comparison. That is one of the biggest challenges of literary criticism. Atwill doesn’t deal with this, he presumes his case and marches on.”
“Correlation does not equal causation” (that was my emphasis above. We also use this term a lot on Skeptiko, but it’s a double-standard not to apply it in this case as well. I would agree with Verenna that the conspiratorial parallels Atwill sees are vague and are words cherry-picked out of context—and these are Atwill’s English translations. Apparently he doesn’t take the reader back to the original Greek of either text(s) for a full exploration of meanings within context.
Also, it’s clear from the list provided above that only the Gospel of Luke follows Josephus closely. You rarely see Mark or John. Mark’s was the earliest Gospel, written around/just after the fall of Jerusalem in 70AD – so his was possibly written BEFORE Josephus wrote WOJ c. 75AD. Luke and Mathew both copied from Mark. Luke is dated from 90AD-130AD; Matthew is dated from 80-100AD. It’s possible that Luke had a copy of Matthew also, which can account for the overlap there (or that both used “Q” as a source). And recent scholarship does point clearly to Luke having a copy of Josephus on hand when he sat down to write his gospel. It’s not so clear for Matthew, and very likely not for Mark (written earlier than WOJ) and John (very different, dated 80-120AD). For dating of the gospels see
www.earlychristianwritings.com .
Two scholars draw heavily on the work of history professor Steve Mason (
http://www.amazon.com/Josephus-New-Testament-Steve-Mason/dp/0801047005 ). Richard Carrier does a very good job showing how Luke used Josephus here:
http://infidels.org/library/modern/richard_carrier/lukeandjosephus.html . However, Carrier also trashes Atwill’s thesis here:
http://freethoughtblogs.com/carrier/archives/4664 . So the fact that Luke and Josephus have a bit in common doesn’t equate with some huge Flavian conspiracy/dark satire. Christian scholar Greg Herrick does a good and fair/balanced job of showing how Josephus is related to the NT writings here:
https://bible.org/article/josephus’-writings-and-their-relation-new-testament
What stands out for me is how Herrick illustrates where Josephus and the NT gospels do NOT agree, especially with regard to John the Baptist, in that Josephus is pretty general; the gospel writers seem to have been privy to more details regarding John’s theology and baptismal rites, etc., perhaps from eye-witness accounts (either directly or handed down in the gospel writer’s communities). Most scholars agree that Jesus was a disciple of John before going off on his own public ministry (which differed from John’s in a few aspects). Jesus took some of John’s disciples with him, and there is evidence in the gospels of a rivalry between John’s disciples and those of Jesus. So it makes sense that the gospel writers’ accounts of John the Baptist are more accurate than Josephus’s. This evidence goes against Josephus/the Flavians being the authors of the gospels. Again, it points to them USING Josephus for historical content, but they are using other sources as well.
More in part 2....