Again, high brain activity is correlated with dreaming, low to zero is correlated with the NDE. The idea that we can dream in a way that is strangely similar between cultures and across time during a time of low to zero brain activity and in many cases cease of bloodflow to the brain is just not based on anything at all
In the *normal waking state* significant cortical activity is correlated with dreaming, but as I have told you, dreaming is by no means limited to cortical activity. Indeed, to the extent that “speech” enters into dreams, as per your claim, this is one example of something that may be contributed by the cortex in normal waking state. Also, as I said above, we don’t know that there is zero brain activity at time of NDEs, and you simply repeating this unestablished fact on numerous occasions isn’t making it progressively more true, whether you believe it is or not. We still need 1) formal time-stamped monitoring, and 2) real time deep brain monitoring, before this discussion can even sensibly be had with proper data.
Yes the same imaginal aptitude with totally different features and correlated brain activity, again completely baseless. Your analogy here is weak, many interviews are not highly focused and are rather more spontaneous while not all household conversations are sporadic, this has no comparison to the relative differences between dream and NDE content whatsover
Not totally different features. Many more features in common, as I said before, than the waking world has in common with NDEs. I think any observer given a sample of 10 job interviews and 10 random conversations, based on audio tapes only on which obvious cues (such, as “hi and welcome to this job interview” :) ) were removed, would have no difficulty in identifying the job interviews nonetheless. You seem to be trying to make a kind of *a priori* case that NDEs cannot be a form of imagined activity, but your case supposes that imaginal activity is not a flexible range, when we already *KNOW* that it is a flexible range, crossing from waking state to dreams and drug visions (among other things).
Yes there is, this is EXACTLY WHY that distinction is made by the only people who matter in this regard, those whom have had the NDE, if there was no distinction, why do they make it? During the dream we know you are not actaully "talking with your mouth", but that is "emulated". Clearly. Hence if we feel thisis not being emulated during the NDE, we make note of it and again, it is a massive discrepancy that you are failing to address beyond making speculatie statements that disregard the accounts themselves
I really don’t know what you mean here. First of all, as I explained to you before, I almost never have speech in dreams, so your point is highly eccentric to me from the beginning…albeit that I am trying to honor it seriously, it is just not my experience. My point is that the underlying architecture of speech involves a lot more than the cortex, so again, in a deeper form of dreaming in which the cortex was anomalously offline, temporarily, we might have an absence of speech in that form of dreaming, just as there is often an absence of faces in NDEs, presumably because the brain’s face recognition aptitudes (cortical for the most part) are not functioning properly either.
My own dream journal, my brothers, 3 of my close friends and speaking to many others. I would be happy to provide a selection of these dreams at any point. People do not regularly make note of speaking in a manner that feels "telepathic" but rather in a manner that emulated waking life.
Okay, but I meant actual studies and what not. Otherwise it’s a “your word against mine” kind of thing. As I said, I would be hard pressed to even remember the last dream I had in which ‘speaking’ featured at all. I suspect that almost all of my dreams feature what I think you are calling “telepathy” in this context…and which I would call nonverbal associations of meaning.
.Because man of them have seen before and were not blind from birth, it's that simple
But if they have seen before, then their brains already have learned contexts for visual imagination.
Of course you don't it goes against your hypothesis. That fact remains that this is a discrepancy in the experienced ontological nature of the experiences and you can only attempt to reconsile it in a way that fits your ideas.
As it goes against your hypothesis to assume that it does. I don’t see any “ontological” discrepancy at all, I only see a variation in degree. If beings in NDEs were capable of flying helicopters and landing them at Congress, that would be an *ontological* discrepancy with dreams ;)
Your missing the point, if the systems of the brain which produced dreams produce the NDE, it is strange that the dream is not had during deep General Anaesthesia yet the NDE is.
But you are missing my point…there is no such thing as normal anaesthesia once the brain starts to malfunction, because anaesthesia is a drug delivery process. As soon as the heart stops, for example, such delivery is impaired in ways that project the drug’s efficacy into unpredictable terrain.